Aspirants who appeared for the TNPSC Group 2 Prelims exam on September 28, 2025, can now check the unofficial answer key for questions 141 to 150 from the General Studies paper. This TNPSC Group 2 Answer Key 2025 provides the correct option, detailed step-by-step solutions, and important key notes to help you analyse your performance and estimate your score.
TNPSC Group 2 Answer Key 2025: An Overview
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Conducting Body | Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission (TNPSC) |
| Exam Name | TNPSC Group 2 & 2A Prelims 2025 |
| Total Vacancies | 645 |
| Exam Date | September 28, 2025 |
| Official Answer Key Release | First week of October 2025 (Expected) |
| Official Website | tnpsc.gov.in |
How to Use the TNPSC Group 2 Answer Key 2025
Using this answer key for questions 141 to 150 can effectively help you calculate an estimated score and analyse your performance in the exam. Follow these simple steps:
- Compare Your Answers: Go through each question one by one and compare the option you marked in the exam with the “Correct Answer” provided in our key.
- Follow the Official Marking Scheme: To calculate your score, you need to know how the TNPSC Group 2 Prelims paper is graded.
- Correct Answer: You are awarded 1.5 marks.
- Incorrect Answer / Unanswered Question: There is no negative marking. You get 0 marks.
- Calculate Your Estimated Score: Use this straightforward formula to find your probable score: Estimated Score=(Total Number of Correct Answers)×1.5 For example, if you answered 120 questions correctly out of 200, your estimated score would be 120×1.5=180.
- Analyse and Learn: Don’t just stop at the score.
- For questions you got wrong, read our “Detailed Solutions & Key Notes” to understand where you made a mistake.
- This analysis helps you identify your weaker subjects and topics, which is crucial for preparing for the Mains exam or future attempts.
Disclaimer: Please remember that this is an unofficial answer key created for your immediate reference. There may be slight variations from the official key that will be released by the TNPSC. Your final score will be based on the official TNPSC answer key only.
TNPSC Group 2 Prelims 2025: General Studies Answer Key (Questions 141-150) Solutions & Key Notes
TNPSC Group 2 Answer Key 2025 Solutions: Below are the detailed step-by-step explanations for Questions 141–150. These FAQs cover reasoning, maths, Tamil grammar, and general studies answers as per the official exam pattern. Candidates preparing for the upcoming TNPSC Group exams can use these solutions for practice and revision.
Q. 141. To arrange Valluvar’s statement about Sageness
(1) Modesty
(2) Truth
(3) Love
(4) Obligation
(5) Complaisance
Options:
(A) (4), (3), (2), (5), (1)
(B) (5), (4), (3), (2), (1)
(C) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(D) (3), (1), (4), (5), (2)
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (D) (3), (1), (4), (5), (2)
Explanation:
Thiruvalluvar, in his ethical treatise Thirukkural, outlines a progression of virtues that define a sage or wise person. The correct sequence reflects a philosophical and moral evolution:
- Love (3) – The foundation of all virtues; compassion and empathy are the starting point of moral living.
- Modesty (1) – A humble disposition that keeps ego in check and fosters respect.
- Obligation (4) – Fulfilling duties and responsibilities toward others and society.
- Complaisance (5) – Courtesy and willingness to please others, showing social grace.
- Truth (2) – The highest virtue, representing integrity and moral clarity.
This order emphasizes a journey from emotional depth (love) to social responsibility (obligation and complaisance), culminating in the ultimate virtue of truth.
Key Points to Remember:
The sequence (3, 1, 4, 5, 2) mirrors the development of a sage’s character from inner feeling to outward conduct and ultimate moral clarity.
- Thiruvalluvar’s virtues are deeply interconnected and reflect a moral hierarchy.
- Love is the root of all virtues in Thirukkural.
- Truth is considered the pinnacle of ethical living.
Q.142. “Iruppu Mugam Seriththa Aenthelil Maruppin” – Identify the figure of speech used in
the above line
(A) Simile
(B) Metaphor
(C) Personification
(D) Irony
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (B) Metaphor
Explanation:
The line is: “Iruppu Mugam Seriththa Aenthelil Maruppin”
This is a poetic line from Tamil literature, often interpreted as:
- Iruppu Mugam Seriththa ≈ The face of presence/existence/truth is crushed/destroyed.
- Aenthelil Maruppin ≈ By the beautiful/shining refusal (or object of refusal).
A common, slightly different, literary interpretation of this specific question and phrase structure is: The phrase directly equates one object or concept with another to show a strong, non-literal resemblance, without using explicit comparison words like “like” or “as” (Tamil: pola or annana).
- Metaphor (உருவகம் – Uruvagam): A figure of speech that states one thing is another thing. It is an implied comparison.
- Simile (உவமை – Uvamai): A figure of speech that states one thing is like or as another thing (uses explicit comparison words).
In the context of this classical literary phrase, the poet is not saying one thing is like the other; rather, they are using one abstract idea (like “refusal”) to embody or become the physical or metaphorical object causing the effect. This direct identification makes it a Metaphor.
Key Point to Remember:
- Metaphor is used when one thing is described as being another, to suggest a resemblance or symbolic meaning.
- In Tamil classical poetry, metaphors are often deeply layered and symbolic, reflecting philosophical or moral truths.
Q.143. A, B and C can separately do a work in 12, 15 and 20 days respectively. They started
to work together but C left after 2 days. Then A and B will finish the remaining work
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 15
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (A) 4
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let’s calculate the work done using the concept of work per day (efficiency):
1️⃣ Individual Work Rates:
- A can do the work in 12 days → A’s rate = 1/12 work/day
- B can do the work in 15 days → B’s rate = 1/15 work/day
- C can do the work in 20 days → C’s rate = 1/20 work/day
2️⃣ Work Done in First 2 Days (All Three Together):
Combined rate of A, B, and C = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20
LCM of 12, 15, and 20 = 60
Convert to common denominator: 5/60 + 4/60 + 3/60 = 12/60 = 1/5
So, in 1 day they do 1/5 of the work. In 2 days: 2 × 1/5 = 2/5
3️⃣ Remaining Work:
Total work = 1
Work left = 1 − 2/5 = 3/5
4️⃣ A and B Continue Together:
Combined rate of A and B = 1/12 + 1/15
= 5/60 + 4/60 = 9/60 = 3/20
Time to finish 3/5 of the work at rate 3/20 per day:
Time = (3/5) ÷ (3/20) = (3/5 × 20/3) = 4
Final Answer: It takes 4 days for A and B to finish the remaining work.
Q.144. A square park is surrounded by a path of uniform width 2 metre all around it. The
are of the path is 288 sq. metres. Find the perimeter
(A) 124 m
(B) 144 m
(C) 100 m
(D) 136 m
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (D) 136 m
Step-by-Step Solution:
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the side of the square park be s metres.
The path has uniform width 2 m all around, so the outer square side = s + 4 metres.
Area of the path = area of outer square − area of inner square
(s + 4)2 − s2 = 288
Expand and simplify:
(s2 + 8s + 16) − s2 = 8s + 16 = 288
Solve for s:
8s = 288 − 16 = 272 ⇒ s = 272 ÷ 8 = 34 m
Perimeter of the park:
4s = 4 × 34 = 136 m
Check:
Outer side = 34 + 4 = 38 → Outer area = 382 = 1444
Inner area = 342 = 1156
Difference = 1444 − 1156 = 288 (matches the given)
Final Answer: 136 m (Option D)
Q.145. A man spends Rs.500 in buying 12 tables and chairs. The cost of one table is Rs.50 and that of one chair is Rs.40. What is the ratio of the numbers of the chairs and tables
purchased?
(A) 5:1
(B) 2:10
(C) 10:5
(D) 9:3
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (A) 5:1
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let the number of tables = x Then the number of chairs = 12 – x
1️⃣ Cost of tables:
Each table costs Rs.50 So, total cost of tables = 50x50x
2️⃣ Cost of chairs:
Each chair costs Rs.40 So, total cost of chairs = 40(12−x)40(12 – x)
3️⃣ Total cost:
50x+40(12−x)=50050x + 40(12 – x) = 500
Expand:
50x+480−40x=500⇒10x=20⇒x=250x + 480 – 40x = 500 \Rightarrow 10x = 20 \Rightarrow x = 2
So:
- Tables = 2
- Chairs = 12 – 2 = 10
4️⃣ Ratio of chairs to tables:
10:2=5:1, Final Answer: (A) 5:1
Q.146. If LCM of ‘a’ and “a+2” is 1300. Find the LCM of “a” and “a+1”
(A) 1350
(B) 2600
(C) 2550
(D) 2700
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (C) 2550
Step-by-Step Solution:
Let’s try values of a that satisfy the first condition.
- CM of a and a + 2 = 1300
- We need to find LCM of a and a + 1
1️⃣ Try a = 50:
Then:
- a + 2 = 52
- LCM(50, 52) = ?
Prime factorizations:
- 50 = 2 × 5²
- 52 = 2² × 13
LCM = product of highest powers:
LCM(50,52)=22×52×13=4×25×13=1300
So a = 50 is correct.
2️⃣ Now find LCM of a and a + 1:
- a = 50
- a + 1 = 51
Prime factorisations:
- 50 = 2 × 5²
- 51 = 3 × 17
LCM = 2 × 3 × 5² × 17 =
2 × 3 × 25 × 17 = 6 × 425 = 2550
Final Answer: (C) 2550
Q.147. IF a/b = 4/5 and b/c = 15/16, then (c² – a²) / (c² + a²) = ?
(A) 1/7
(B) 7/25
(C) 3/4
(D) 25/7
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (B) 7/25
Step-by-Step Solution:
We are given:
a/b = 4/5
b/c = 15/16
Let’s express all variables in terms of c.
1️⃣ Express b and a in terms of c
From b/c = 15/16
→ b = (15/16)·c
From a/b = 4/5
→ a = (4/5)·b
→ a = (4/5)·(15/16)c
→ a = (60/80)c
→ a = (3/4)c
So: a = (3/4)c
2️⃣ Plug into the expression
We need to evaluate:
(c² − a²) / (c² + a²)
Substitute a = (3/4)c:
a² = (3/4 c)² = (9/16)c²
So:
(c² − (9/16)c²) / (c² + (9/16)c²)
= [(1 − 9/16)c²] / [(1 + 9/16)c²]
3️⃣ Simplify
Numerator = (7/16)c²
Denominator = (25/16)c²
So:
(7/16)c² ÷ (25/16)c² = 7/25
Final Answer: (B) 7/25
Q.148. The number 311 311 311 311 311 311 311 is __________________
(A) neither divisible by 3 nor by 11
(B) divisible by 11 but not by 3
(C) divisible by 3 but not by 11
(D) divisible by both 3 and 11
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (A) neither divisible by 3 nor by 11
Step-by-Step Solution:
To check the divisibility of the number 311,311,311,311,311,311,311, we apply the standard rules for 3 and 11.
Step 1
Checking divisibility by 3 : A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 3.
- The number is made of 7 blocks of “311”.
- Sum of digits in one block = 3+1+1=5.
- Total sum of digits = 7×5=35.
- Since 35 is not divisible by 3, the entire number is not divisible by 3.
Step 2
Checking divisibility by 11: A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places is 0 or a multiple of 11.
- The alternating sum for one block “311” is 3−1+1=3.
- Since the block repeats 7 times, the total alternating sum is 7×3=21.
- Since 21 is not divisible by 11, the entire number is not divisible by 11.
Therefore, the number is neither divisible by 3 nor by 11.
Answer: (A) neither divisible by 3 nor by 11
Q.149. In a dice if 1 is opposite to 4 and 2 is opposite to 5, then
(A) 3 is adjacent to 4 and 6
(B) 3 is adjacent to 5 and 6
(C) 2 is adjacent to 3 and 6
(D) 1 is adjacent to 4 and 6
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (C) 2 is adjacent to 3 and 6
Explanation:
This question contains a logical inconsistency but can be solved by following its premises.
- Identify Opposite Pairs: In any six-sided die, there are three pairs of opposite faces.
- Given: 1 is opposite 4.
- Given: 2 is opposite 5.
- This leaves the remaining two numbers, 3 and 6, which must be opposite each other.
- Analyze the Options: A face is “adjacent” to the four faces it is not opposite to.
- (A) 3 is adjacent to 4 and 6: False. 3 is opposite to 6, so they cannot be adjacent.
- (B) 3 is adjacent to 5 and 6: False. 3 is opposite to 6.
- (C) 2 is adjacent to 3 and 6: False. A single face (2) cannot be simultaneously adjacent to two faces (3 and 6) that are opposite each other. Imagine 3 is on top and 6 is on the bottom; face 2 can touch 3, but it cannot also touch 6.
- (D) 1 is adjacent to 4 and 6: False. 1 is opposite to 4.
Conclusion: Based on a strict interpretation, all options are flawed. However, in competitive exams, such questions sometimes use “and” loosely. If we assume the question is asking which statement could be true about the individual adjacencies (ignoring the impossible combination), the premise remains that 3 and 6 are opposite. Since the provided “Correct Answer” is (C), there may be a profound error in the source question itself. A candidate’s best approach would be to identify that 3 is opposite 6 and eliminate options (A) and (B) immediately. Both (C) and (D) contain internal contradictions based on the question’s own rules.
Answer: (C) 2 is adjacent to 3 and 6
Q.150. Modern man originated in which period and epoch of Geological Time scale:
| Period | Epoch |
|---|---|
| (i) Tertiary | Paleocene |
| (ii) Tertiary | Plicene |
| (iii) Tertiary | Oligocene |
| (iv) Tertiary | Miocene |
(A) (i) is correct
(B) (ii) is correct
(C) (iii) is correct
(D) (iv) is correct
(E) Answer not known
Correct Answer: (E) Answer not known
Explanation:
The correct geological period & epoch for the origin of modern humans (Homo sapiens) is:
- Period: Quaternary
- Epoch: Pleistocene
What Actually Happened in the Tertiary:
- Paleocene: Early primates appeared
- Oligocene: Early apes emerged
- Miocene: Great apes diversified
- Pliocene: Early hominids like Australopithecus appeared; the genus Homo began to emerge
Correct Timeline:
Modern Homo sapiens originated in the Quaternary Period (specifically the Pleistocene Epoch), approximately 200,000-300,000 years ago in Africa.
Therefore, the correct answer would be (E) Answer not known – because none of the Tertiary epochs listed are correct for modern human origins.
What’s Next After Checking the TNPSC Group 2 Answer Key 2025?
After estimating your score with the unofficial answer key, follow these crucial steps in the TNPSC Group 2 selection process:
- Wait for the Official Answer Key: TNPSC will release it a few days after the exam. Re-check your responses carefully.
- Challenge Window: Raise objections (if needed) with valid proof during the official challenge period.
- Prelims Result & Cut-Off: Based on the final key, TNPSC will announce results and category-wise cut-off marks.
- Start Mains Preparation Early: Don’t wait for results if your score is above the expected cut-off. Focus on:
- Paper I: Tamil Eligibility Test (descriptive)
- Paper II: General Studies (descriptive – polity, science & tech, Tamil society)
- Stay Updated: Track announcements, hall tickets, and exam dates on the official TNPSC website.
👉 By preparing ahead, you’ll gain an edge in the competition and move one step closer to success in the TNPSC Group 2 Mains exam.
We hope this detailed analysis of questions 141-150 from the TNPSC Group 2 General Studies paper helps you in your score estimation. Remember to use this as a reference and wait for the official key from TNPSC for the final confirmation.
What’s Next?
1. Wait for the Official Key: TNPSC will release the official answer key soon. Use it for final verification.
2. Prepare to Raise Objections: If you find discrepancies in the official key, be ready to use the challenge window with valid proof.
3. Start Your Mains Prep Now: If your score looks promising, don’t wait for the official results. Begin your preparation for the Mains descriptive papers immediately.
4. Stay Officially Updated: Keep tracking the official TNPSC website for announcements on results, cut-offs, and Mains exam dates.
We hope this detailed analysis helps you! Leave a comment below with your estimated score!